(1) Explain your problem, don't simply post "This isn't working". What were you doing when you faced the problem? What have you tried to resolve - did you look for a solution using "Search" ? Has it happened just once or several times?
(2) It's also good to get feedback when a solution is found, return to the original post to explain how it was resolved so that more people can also use the results.
Friends
Please help me in the term Man hour efficiency..
Please let me know the formula if any body knows...
Regards
Arun V
Printer-friendly version
Send to friend
In addition to Rafaels post, also for mass haul diagrams, the balanced cut and and fill calculations should not be the only parameter for determining volume earthwork productivity and/or earth movements (cut to fill, cut,haul and fill, or cut, haul and dispose; import fill, cut and haul to stockpile, haul from stockpile to fill) but also the type of soil, combination of equipment, economic haul distance, travel time per trip, etc.
I have tried to answer Arun question on manhour efficiency, focusing on the efficiency of the operation or activity itself. Maybe this is his question, maybe not.
I understand our colleagues have related efficiency to Earned Value method, more related to SPI = Earned Value/ Budget Value; which is of course valid, and a separate topic by itself.
I l maintain that even if the SPI=1.0, or higher, it doesnt necessarily mean that the operation is efficientl. It just means that the resources spent is within the budget allocated for that particular item.
Hi!
There's no formula for man-hour efficiency but there's a minimum, the best idea to take the man-hour efficiency is conducting a "time in motion" of a certain manpower:
Example: (Tile Works)
Manpower: (1-tile setter, 1-labor)
If they can finish 10sq.m. in one day for the 8-hours/day, there man-hour efficiency is equal 10/8.
Thnks..
Mike,
Beware of blind application of the Mass Diagram.
http://www.globalsecurity.org/military/library/policy/army/fm/5-430-00-1/CH3.htm
The mass diagram is most effective when used to plan operations along an elongated project similar to a road, an airfield runway, or a taxiway. The haul distances are along the centerline or parallel to it. However, if the project becomes relatively wide compared to its length, movement of earth may be transverse as longitudinal, resulting in longer, transverse haul distances and invalidating the mass diagram analysis.
Best regards,
Rafael
Hi Anning
You are confusing workers pay and estimated rates for labour content.
As regards the CAT efficiency schedule nobody knows how efficient the driver will be when pricing the job so the estimator has to make an estimated judgement.
In any case the productivity on a muck shift project is governed by the average mass haul and the choice of haulage equipment - the excavtion productivity should be somewhere between 80 & 90% of the disposal rate.
Best regards
Mike Testro
May be some language interpretation problem.
For a full expalanation pelase follow the link
http://www.planningplanet.com/wiki/422378/earned-value-management
BR
JMFrade
The issue of Arun is manhour efficiency, so the efficiency for this welder will be measured this way. There is no relationship between how much a worker is getting paid, as to his efficiency on the job. If he does it for free, his efficiency will be the same.
In terms of payment, he hast to be paid for whatever hours he was on the job.
If we talk about productivity, then that is where our efficiency factors come in. This method is demonstrated in the caterpillar machine handbook, where the productivity is affected by
efficiency factors (which affect productivity)
operator skill
working time factor
bucket capacity
loading factors
drag
etc...
Hi Arun
Nobody works at 100% efficiency and the estimator will build in a down time percentage - this is usually built into the labour rate - not the output of production / hours.
That is why I do not use cost as a progress indicator but resource hours.
Best regards
Mike Testro
But,
Even though Welder was stopped for 1 hour he still is going to be paid and project is using 1 hour from the budgeted cost/time. Therefore Eficiency drops to 0.6.
In terms of ressource consuming it does not matter if your ressources are stopped when time is elapsing and costs are accruing - you are usiing a ressource. If they are producing some work still fine, if they are stopped (what ever the reson might be) the efficiency for that particular ressource and period is affected. It would not matter if the non working period would be on someones account, other than the project budget.... Till then, it should be accounted for productivity rate.
BR
JMFrade
The equation is only true if you measure direct actual manhours input to the activity against budget manhours.
To illustrate:
Suppose the budget for a a first pass to weld a 24" diameter pipe is 3 hours for one welder, and it took this welder 4 hours, then the efficiency, using Jose's formula will be Budget= 3 manhours / Actual = 4manhours, which yields 75% efficiency.
However, let us say the welder hours was 7:00am until 12:00pm, but between 9:00-10:00am, he stopped welding due to inspection (for example) then although the total hours to complete the weld is 5 hours, but for the calculation of
his welding efficiency, the total actual welding manhours is only 4 hrs which still gives 75% efficiency,
It will be different when productivity is the question, where the productivity factors are introduced.
USE THIS FORMULA -
EARNED MANHOURS = % COMPLETE * BUDGETED MANHOURS
THE JUST DIVIDE EARNED MAHOURS BY ACTUAL MAHOURS CONSUMED ...
Hi Arum.
Eficiency 1 is good. It means you are producing as per your budget. Below 1 is not so good. Idea is to keep observing how eficiency changes on every update as an indicator for your project forecast.
My experience is that you will have lower than 1 ( I do not remember a project planned/controled by me where the efficiency was above 1)
BR
JMFrade
Hi Arum
Jose is right..........
Hi Arum
Jose is right..........
Thank you Jose....
Please Let me know how we analysise ??
I mean above 1 is good and below 1 is poor efficiency ?????
Regards
Arun V
Hi Arum
Eficiency = Earned Value (M/H) / Spent (M/H).
and then
Forecast (M/H) to completion = Remaining Earning Value / Eficiency.
Note: Earned value and Remaining Earning value are based on Budgetary values.
Hope it is clear and helps.
BR
JMFrade
Email: PPadmin@planningplanet.com
Replies