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If a contract states something like “Within 154 days after proceed date in LNTP” - in this case would use the day after NTP as Day 1. How ofter do you count NTP as day 1 vs the day after. I know using NTP as day is less hassle, if using the next day you actually need two milestones to get the roll-up count to work better, but still a hassle. People think they are doing the contractor a favor by making the next day - day 1, but it is more of hassle on the schedule.
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On the contract it clearly states where the NTP sits. Typical contracts states NTP + (no of days). The reason behind is NTP served at what time? For sure is not the first thing in the morning therefore it is common sense that it will be count day after the NTP is being serve.
Email: PPadmin@planningplanet.com
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