just would like a general opinion on this issue. In short on DT3, the Contractor Submitted a Baseline that had 3 months float. The work was dependent on the big contract moving a sewer first, which they are now moving that 3 months later. One opinion is the contractor gets $0 because they provided 3 months float. Another opinion, (the contractor’s mainly) is they should get compensation for labor rates going up over that period. What is your opinion? who is right? (Personally I think the contractor should not have provided float, but - I have been on jobs where the Subst. Cpl requ was just way too out and then you run into problems proving delays because your activities are too long and not as planned. And if you thought they deserved compensation, wouldn't you have to wait to make there is not concurrent delays in that future period?